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kwnkillcare
20th February 2008, 08:48 AM
I am pretty sure this has been covered before, but I can't find it.
Can I run an OEM version of Vista under Vmware on my Mac or do I need the full retail version?

snark
20th February 2008, 09:20 AM
I would also like to know the answer to this - not only from a legal perspective, but also from a technical point of view. Will an OEM version detect the hardware as somehow "invalid", and not install?

Ethically, I think you should be able to install software that was originally purchased with a PC on anything you want, as long as you have removed it from the original machine. If the PC is now running (say) Ubuntu, you should be free to reuse the Windows license on another machine, irrespective of what type it is.

Currawong
20th February 2008, 09:27 AM
There's no difference in the actual DVD between an OEM version of Windows and the retail boxed version. As far as I know, there's only a requirement about how the OEM version can be sold.

Jolyon
20th February 2008, 09:30 AM
Ethically, I think you should be able to install software that was originally purchased with a PC on anything you want, as long as you have removed it from the original machine. If the PC is now running (say) Ubuntu, you should be free to reuse the Windows license on another machine, irrespective of what type it is.

I don't believe this is the case - an OEM version is "tied" to a specific machine.

Also, with Vista, I believe there was (this may no longer be the case) a restriction on which versions you could "virtualise".

geektechnu
20th February 2008, 10:07 AM
... an OEM version is "tied" to a specific machine.
Not true - OEM versions can even be purchased from retailers (along with qualifying hardware parts).
Not tied down to a specific machine at all.

Also, with Vista, I believe there was (this may no longer be the case) a restriction on which versions you could "virtualise".
Microsoft have indeed changed the EULA terms to allow virtualisation of Home editions.

Though I've always maintained that the original EULA clearly stated that virtualisation was allowed as long as you weren't natively booting it as well (as this counts as installing on 2 machines, hence requiring 2 licenses).

snark
4th March 2008, 02:54 PM
XP rather than Vista question:
What about using the license that came with a big brand PC? (eg. Dell, Compaq/HP, IBM/Lenovo, etc.)?
I'm pretty sure the "recovery" CD that ships with these is tied to particular hardware, but if you happened to have access to a vanilla XP install CD, could you just use the license number from the old PC?

dev_enter
4th March 2008, 03:34 PM
I've found that different XP discs have different conceptions of what it considers to be a valid license key.
For example, I have VPC6 and VPC7 which both came with XP, I had to slipstream separate discs for each of these in order to install them. Which sucks because I have to maintain 2 discs instead of just one.
You may find that the license key from the recovery CD will not work with a "vanilla" XP install CD.